SENTHIL KUMAR: UPSC -2014 Prelims (Aug 24, 2014) - Question Paper Analysis

(08) Economics

UPSC – CSE – 2013	UPSC – CSE – 2014
18 questions	Declined to only 10
Banking related topic formed major part	Same
BoP classification question	Topic repeats
No questions on stupid schemes	Thankfully same
Overall easy.	Easier.

(01) The terms ‘Marginal Standing Facility Rate’ and ‘Net Demand and Time Liabilities’, sometimes appearing in news, are used in relation to

(a) banking operations

(b) communication networking

(d) supply and demand of agricultural products

Explanation(s):-

Economic survey page 16.

Answer: (a) Banking Operations.

(02) What is/are the facility/facilities the beneficiaries can get from the services of Business Correspondent (Bank Saathi) in branchless areas?

1. It enables the beneficiaries to draw their subsidies and social security benefits in their villages.

2. It enables the beneficiaries in the rural areas to make deposits and withdrawals.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation(s):-

Besides giving access to banking, it also enables government subsidies and social security benefits to be directly credited to the accounts of the beneficiaries, enabling them to draw the money from the bank saathi or business correspondents in their village itself.

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2.

(03) In the context of Indian economy; which of the following is/are the purpose/purposes of ‘Statutory Reserve Requirements’?

1. To enable the Central Bank to control the amount of advances the banks can create

2. To make the people’s deposits with banks safe and liquid

3. To prevent the commercial banks from making excessive profits

4. To force the banks to have sufficient vault cash to meet their day-to-day requirements

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Explanation(s):-

RBI requires commercial banks to keep reserves in order to ensure that banks have a safe cushion of assets to draw on when account holders want to be paid. – [NCERT class 12, chapter 3, page 39]

Answer: (b) 1 and 2 only.

(04) If the interest rate is decreased in an economy, it will

(a) decrease the consumption expenditure in the economy

(b) increase the tax collection of the Government

(d) increase the total savings in the economy

Explanation(s):-

The relationship between interest rate and investment Expenditure is illustrated by the investment curve of the economy. The curve has downward slope, indicating that a drop in interest rate, causes the investment-spending to rise.

Answer: (c) increase the investment expenditure in the economy.

(05) With reference to Union Budget, which of the following, is/are covered under Non-Plan Expenditure?

1. Defense -expenditure

2. Interest payments

3. Salaries and pensions

4. Subsidies

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) None

Answer: (c) 1, 2, 3 and 4

(06) The sales tax you pay while purchasing a toothpaste is a

(a) tax imposed by the Central Government.

(b) tax imposed by the Central Government but collected by the State Government

(d) tax imposed and collected by the State Government

Explanation(s):-

Laxmikanth, Chapter on Central-state relations, page 14.9, sales tax is a tax levied and collected by the State.

Answer: (b) tax imposed and collected by the State Government.

(07) The main objective of the 12th Five-Year Plan is

(a) inclusive growth and poverty reductions

(b) inclusive and sustainable growth

(d) faster, sustainable and more inclusive growth

Answer: (d) faster, sustainable and more inclusive growth

(08) What does venture capital mean?

(a) A short-term capital provided to industries

(b) A long-term start-up capital provided to new entrepreneurs

(d) Funds provided for replacement and renovation of industries

Answer: (b) A long-term start-up capital provided to new entrepreneurs

(09) With reference to Balance of Payments, which of the following constitutes/constitute the Current Account?

1. Balance of trade

2. Foreign assets

3. Balance of invisibles

4. Special Drawing Right

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3

(d) 1, 2 and 4

Explanation(s):-

Balance of Trade (1) and Balance of invisibles are part of “Current Account”. There is only one option where 1 and 3 are together, hence answer is (c).

Answer: (c) 1 and 3

(10) Which of the following organizations brings out the publication known as ‘World Economic Outlook’?

(a) The International Monetary Fund

(b) The United Nations Development Programme

(d) The World Bank

Answer: (a) The International Monetary Fund

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How to approach Economics topics for UPSC CSE - 2015?

Ø NCERT Class 11

Ø Selective reading of NCERT Class 12 Micro and Macro-economics.

Ø Budget and economic survey.

India

yearbook chapters on commerce finance, industries, etc.

Ø M. Laxmikanth: Parliament: Budget, money bill-finance bill; Centre-State relations, Finance commission, Appendix-Union-state list (for taxes) etc.

Ø Indian express OR Hindu. (Indian Express’s economy coverage better than Hindu’s)

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(07) Environment

UPSC – CSE – 2013	UPSC – CSE – 2014
Parks Vs Hills, Parks Vs Rivers	Wetlands Vs Rivers, Sanctuaries Vs States
Endangered species	Thankfully that stupidity was not repeated. Hard to prepare, memorize and recall such large list.
Find who’re mammals	Find who hibernates?
Nitrogen cycle	Carbon cycle
Soil conversation	Topic re-appeared
Pollution: smog	Steel industry + tough question on nanoparticles
Food chain theory	Topic re-appeared but with more difficult question
Flora-fauna mostly about location	Location + behavior (e.g. cattle-insect)
Energy: bagasse	Shalegas, Guargum
Shale gas had become a hot topic but wasn’t asked.	Finally asked in both mains-2013 as well as Prelims-2014.
Nil	Significant number of questions on international treaties and organization

(01) Which one of the following is the process involved in photosynthesis?

(a) Potential energy is released to form free energy

(b) Free energy is converted into potential energy and stored

(d) Oxygen is taken, and carbon dioxide and water vapour are given out

Explanation(s):-

During photosynthesis, solar energy converted to chemical energy and stored in sugar molecule bonds. This chemical bond energy is potential (stored) energy.

Answer: (b) Free energy is converted into potential energy and stored.

(02) Which of the following adds/add carbon dioxide to the carbon cycle on the planet Earth?

1. Volcanic action

2. Respiration

3. Photosynthesis

4. Decay of organic matter

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 2 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Explanation(s):-

Again elimination does most of the work.

Photosynthesis does not add, instead it ‘sucks’ out the carbon dioxide. This eliminates option A and D. Volcanic action releases CO2 in the atmosphere. So including 1.

We have the final answer as (c) 1, 2 and 4 only.

Answer: (c) 1, 2 and 4 only.

(03) In India, the problem of soil erosion is associated with which of the following?

1. Terrace cultivation

2. Deforestation

3. Tropical climate

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation(s):-

NCERT Geography class10, chapter 1 page 11: Terrace Cultivation helps reduce soil erosion. So, problem of soil erosion is not associated with terrace cultivation. #1 is wrong, option A, C and D automatically eliminated and we are left with answer (B) only 2.

Answer: (b) 2 only.

(04) Lichens, which are capable of initiating ecological succession even on a bare rock, are actually a symbiotic association of

(a) algae and bacteria

(b) algae and fungi

(d) fungi and mosses

Explanation(s):-

In organisms called lichens, a chlorophyll-containing partner, which is an alga, and a fungus live together fungus provides shelter, water and minerals to the alga and, in return, the alga provides food which it prepares by photosynthesis. (NCERT 7th Std, Chapter 1, page 7)

Answer: (b) algae and fungi.

(05) The most important strategy for the conservation of biodiversity together with traditional human life is the establishment of

(a) biosphere reserves

(b) botanical gardens

(d) wildlife sanctuaries

Explanation(s):-

B is wrong because People don’t live in botanical gardens with plants.

C is wrong because in national park, human activity is totally prohibited.

D: wildlife sanctuaries- human activity is partially allowed.

But “A” is better choice, because,

· as per Forest ministry guideline: “Biosphere Reserves are special entities (sites) for …how human beings and nature can co-exist while respecting each other’s needs”

India

yearbook page 287: Biosphere reserve- goal is to foster economic Development which is ecologically sustainable.

Answer: (a) biosphere reserves.

(06) With reference to ‘Eco-Sensitive Zones’, which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. Eco-Sensitive Zones are the areas that are declared under the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972.

2. The purpose of the declaration of Eco-Sensitive Zones is to prohibit all kinds of human activities, in those zones except agriculture.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation(s):-

As per Environment ministry webpage:

1 is wrong. It is declared under Environment (Protection) Act, 1986.

2 is wrong. Tourism and other activities allowed. observe this gazette notification page 17, it permits cottage industries, erection of telecom and electricity wires, tourism, hot-air balloons and so on.

Answer: (d) Neither 1 nor 2.

(07) Consider the following pairs

1. Dampa Tiger Reserve: Mizoram

2. Gumti Wildlife Sanctuary: Sikkim

3. Saramati Peak: Nagaland

Which of the above pairs is /are correctly matched?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation(s):-

1 is correct. Spectrum Geography Page 636 Table Tiger reserve states.

2 is wrong. It is in Tripura.

3 is correct. India Yearbook 2014, Page 1003. Mt. Saramati is the highest peak in Nagaland

Answer: (c) 1 and 3 only.

(08) Consider the following pairs

Wetlands Confluence of rivers

1. Harike Wetlands Beas and Satluj/Sutlej

2. Keoladeo Ghana National Park Banas and Chambal

3. Kolleru Lake Confluence of Musi and Krishna

Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation(s):-

2 is wrong. It is formed by inundation of Gambira and Banganga rivers. [Reference 2]

3 is wrong. It is confluence of Godavari and Krishna [Reference 3]

1 is correct. [Reference 1]

Answer: (a) 1 only.

(09) Which of the following have coral reefs?

1. Andaman and Nicobar Islands

2. Gulf of Kutch

3. Gulf of Mannar

4. Sunderbans

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only

(b) 2 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Explanation(s):-

Major reef formations in Indian seas occur in the Gulf of Mannar, Palk Bay, Gulf of Kutch, the Andaman and Nicobar Islands and the Lakshadweep. [India Yearbook 2014 - page 287].

Answer: (a) 1, 2 and 3 only.

(10) Consider the following:

1. Bats

2. Bears

3. Rodents

The phenomenon of hibernation can be observed in which of the above kinds of animals?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Hibernation cannot be observed in any of the above

Answer: (c) 1, 2 and 3.

(11) Among the following organisms, which one does not belong to the class of other three?

(a) Crab

(b) Mite

(d) Spider

Explanation(s):-

Mite, Scorpion and mite are Arachnids, while Crab is a Crustacean

Answer: (a) Crab.

(12) Which one of the following is the correct sequence of a food chain?

(a) Diatoms-Crustaceans-Herrings

(b) Crustaceans-Diatoms-Herrings

(d) Crustaceans-Herrings-Diatoms

Explanation(s):-

Interestingly, same question asked in IES 2009 paper.

Answer: (a) Diatoms-Crustaceans-Herrings.

(13) If you travel through the Himalayas, you are Likely to see which of the following plants naturally growing there?

1. Oak

2. Rhododendron

3. Sandalwood

Select the correct answer using the code given below

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation(s):-

Oak and Rhododendron given under “Himalayan region” [NCERT Class 11 India Physical, ch5, page 60] So 1 and 2 are correct

Now, left with two choices A or D

All are correct because:

Same NCERT chapter: Sandalwood is found in Moist Deciduous forests found in the northeastern states along the foothills of Himalayas.

So 3 also correct

Only 1 and 2 because:

But the presence is ‘negligible’ and / or confined only to Northeastern states. The question says “likely” to see….so it should be a species that is easily seen in all regions

Final Answer? UPSC’s official answer key. So our ‘luck’ can swing either way between (a) and (d)

Answer: (a) 1 and 2 only. / (d) 1, 2 and 3.

(14) If you walk through countryside, you are likely to see some birds stalking alongside the cattle to seize the insects, disturbed by their movement through grasses, Which of the following is/are such bird/birds?

1. Painted Stork

2. Common Myna

3. Black-necked Crane

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 and 2

(b) 2 only

(d) 3 only

Explanation(s):-

Painted Stork: it is a fish eating bird

Common Myna: It is an opportunistic feeder on inspects, disturbed by grazing cattle.

Black-necked crane: Found in Trans-Himalayan region; Only found in Arunanchal Pradesh and Ladakh (WWF); So we are unlikely to find it while walking through “country side” in all states and places.

Answer: (a) 2 only

(15) Other than poaching, what are the possible reasons for the decline in the population of Ganges River Dolphins?

1. Construction of dams and barrages on rivers

2. Increase in the population of crocodiles in rivers

3. Getting trapped in fishing nets accidentally

4. Use of synthetic fertilizers and other agricultural chemicals in crop-fields in the vicinity of rivers

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Explanation(s):-

As per Ministry of Environment, statements 1, 3 and 4 are correct.

[Ministry Website]

Answer: (a) 1, 3 and 4 only

(16) With reference to two non-conventional energy sources called ‘coal bed methane’ and ‘shale gas’, consider the following ‘statements:

1. Coal bed methane is the pure methane gas extracted from coal seams, while shale gas is a mixture of propane and butane only that can be extracted from fine-grained sedimentary rocks.

2. In India abundant coal bed methane sources exist, but so far no shale gas sources have been found.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation(s):-

Shale gas contains methane. First statement says it contains “propane and butane only”…So 1 is wrong.

Shale gas resources exist in India.

Answer: (a) Neither 1 nor 2.

(17) In India, cluster bean (Guar) is traditionally used as a vegetable or animal feed, but recently the cultivation of this has assumed significance. Which one of the following statements is correct in this context?

(a) The oil extracted from seeds is used in the manufacture of biodegradable plastics

(b) The gum made from its seeds is used in the extraction of shale gas

(d) It is a source of high quality biodiesel

Answer: (b) The gum made from its seeds is used in the extraction of shale gas.

(18) With reference to technologies for solar power production, consider the following statemenrs:

1. ‘Photovoltaics’ is a technology that generates electricity by direct conversion of light into electricity, while ‘Solar Thermal’ is a technology that utilizes the Sun’s rays to generate heat which is further used in electricity generation process.

2. Photovoltaics generates Alternating Current (AC), while Solar Thermal generates Direct Current (DC).

3. India has manufacturing base for Solar Thermal technology, but not for Photovoltaics.

Which of the statements given above is / are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) None

Answer: (a) 1 only.

(19) There is some concern regarding the nanoparticles of some chemical elements that are used by the industry in the manufacture of various products. Why?

1. They can accumulate in the environment, and contaminate water and soil.

2. They can enter the food chains.

3. They can trigger the production of free radicals.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3.

(20) Which of the following are some important pollutants released by steel industry in India?

1. Oxides of sulphur

2. Oxides of nitrogen

3. Carbon monoxide

4. Carbon dioxide

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1, 3 and 4 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Explanation(s):-

ILO website lists all them [Intl Labour Org]

Answer: (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4.

(21) Brominated flame retardants are used in many household products like mattresses and upholstery. Why is there some concern about their use?

1. They are highly resistant to degradation in the environment.

2. They are able to accumulate in humans and animals.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2.

(22) Consider the following countries:

1. Denmark

2. Japan

3. Russian Federation

4. United Kingdom

5. United States of America

Which of the above are the members of the ‘Arctic Council ‘?

(a) 1, 2 and 3

(b) 2, 3 and 4

(d) 1, 3 and 5

Explanation(s):-

The Arctic Council consists of the eight Arctic States: Canada, Denmark, Finland, Iceland, Norway, Russia, Sweden and the United States. So, Japan and UK are not members, so eliminate options accordingly. By this, we left with only one option (a)

Last year, India got observer status in this council a year back.

Answer: (d) 1, 3 and 5.

(23) With reference to ‘Global Environment Facility’, which of the following statements is/are correct?

(a) It serves as financial mechanism for ‘Convention on Biological Diversity’ and ‘United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change’.

(b) It undertakes scientific research on environmental issues at global level

(c) It is an agency under OECD to facilitate the transfer of technology and funds to underdeveloped countries with specific aim to protect their environment.

(d) Both (a) and (b)

Answer: (a) It serves as financial mechanism for ‘Convention on Biological Diversity’ and ‘United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change’.

(24) If a wetland of international importance is brought under the ‘Montreux Record’, what does it imply?

(a) Changes in ecological character have occurred, are occurring or are likely to occur in the wetland as a result of human interference.

(b) The country in which the wetland is located should enact a law to prohibit any human activity within five kilo meters from the edge of the wetland

(c) The survival of the wetland depends on the cultural practices and traditions of certain communities living in its vicinity and therefore the cultural diversity therein should not be destroyed

(d) It is given the status of ‘World Heritage Site’

Explanation(s):-

Under Ramsar sites=> Montreux record is the record of Ramsar sites where Changes in ecological character have occurred, are occurring or are likely to occur in the wetland as a result of human interference.

Therefore, answer is (A)

Answer: (a) Changes in ecological character have occurred, are occurring or are likely to occur in the wetland as a result of human interference.

(25) With reference to a conservation organization called Wetlands International’, which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. It is an intergovernmental organization formed by the countries which are signatories to Ramsar Convention.

2. It works at the field level to develop and mobilize knowledge, and use the practical experience to advocate for better policies.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation(s):-

Statement 1 is wrong because:

This organization is in partnership but not formed by Ramsar convention. The organization was formed in 1954 and Ramsar convention was signed in 1971.

Statement 2 is right because it provides advice to governments.

Answer: (b) 2 only.

(26) Consider the following international agreements:

1. The International Treaty on Plant Genetic Resources for Food and Agriculture

2. The United Nations Convention to Combat Desertification

3. The World Heritage Convention

Which of the above has / have a bearing on the biodiversity?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation(s):-

Statement 1 is true: Article 6 of the treaty on Sustainable Use of Plant Genetic Resources has this clause “pursuing fair agricultural policies that promote… use of agricultural biological diversity”

Statement 2 is true: UNCCD collaborates closely with Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD) . So, UNCCD has a bearing on Biodiversity.

Statement 3 is true: There are five conventions in biodiversity and natural heritage- [(1) Ramsar Convention on Wetlands; (2) World Heritage Convention; (3) Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and Flora; (4) Convention on the Conservation of Migratory Species of Wild Animals; (5) Convention on Biological Diversity]

Answer: (b) 1, 2 and 3.

(27) The scientific view is that the increase in global temperature should not exceed 2 °C above pre-industrial level. If the global temperature increases beyond 3°C above the pre-industrial level, what can be its possible impact/impacts on the world?

1. Terrestrial biosphere tends toward a net carbon source

2. Widespread coral mortality will occur.

3. All the global wetlands will permanently disappear.

4. Cultivation of cereals will not be possible anywhere in the world.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer: (b) 1 and 2 only.

(28) Consider the following statements:

1. Animal Welfare Board of India is established under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986.

2. National Tiger Conservation Authority is a statutory body.

3. National Ganga River Basin Authority is chaired by the Prime Minister.

Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation(s):-

Animal Welfare Board was established in 1962 under Section 4 of the Prevention of Cruelty to Animals Act, 1960 [India Yearbook 2014 Page 29] So, 1 is wrong, A and D eliminated. Answer could be B or C.

NGRBA chaired by PM is correct. [India Yearbook 2014 Page 682]

Tiger Authority is a statutory body under Wildlife protection Act [Press Info Bureau]

Answer: (b) 2 and 3 only.

(29) With reference to Bombay Natural History Society (BNHS), consider the following statements:

1. It is an autonomous organization under the Ministry of Environment and Forests.

2. It strives to conserve nature through action-based research, education and public awareness.

3. It organizes and conducts nature trails and camps for the general public.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 2 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation(s):-

BNHS is designated as a Scientific and Industrial Research Organization (SIRO) by Department of Science & Technology. So 1 is wrong

2 and 3 are correct [BNHS]

Answer: (b) 2 and 3 only.

(30) Consider the following statements regarding ‘Earth Hour’

1. It is an initiative of UNEP and UNESCO.

2. It is a movement in which the participants switch off the lights for one hour on a certain day every year.

3. It is a movement to raise the awareness about the climate change and the need to save the planet.

Which of the statements given above is / are correct?

(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 2 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation(s):-

It’s a symbolic global initiative by World Wildlife Fund (WWF). So 1 is wrong, A and D eliminated. Other two are correct as per the same report. [The Hindu]

Answer: (c) 2 and 3 only.

(31) Every year, a month long ecologically important campaign/festival is held during which certain communities/ tribes plant saplings of fruit-bearing trees. Which of the following are such communities/tribes?

(a) Bhutia and Lepcha

(b) Gond and Korku

(d) Sahariya and Agariya

Explanation(s):-

[The Hindu]

Answer: (b) Gond and Korku.

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How to approach Environment / Ecology] topics for UPSC CSE - 2015?

Ø In CSAT-2014, the number and difficulty level of environment questions increased

Ø Some of the questions could be solved directly from NCERT and India yearbook chapter on environment.

Ø India Year Book [Chapter 1- land and people (geography); Chapter 11- Energy; Chapter 12- Environment]

Ø Official site for Environment ministry: envfor.nic.in

Ø Notes-making from Hindu, Frontline, PIB etc. news sources in similar fashion.

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(06) Geography

UPSC – CSE – 2013	UPSC – CSE – 2014
World Geography – 02 questions (one on map and one on climate)	World Geography – 02 questions (both on map)
Good Number of questions from NCERT Class XI – India Physical Geography	Same
1 Question on Tribes of India	Same
1 Question on Season	Same
1 Question on Narmada River	1 Question on River but map/factoid type

(01) Which of the following phenomena might have influenced the evolution of organisms?

1. Continental drift

2. Glacial cycles

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation(s):-

Continental drift: 200 million years ago, that large continent Pangaea starts breaking up.

Last Glacial cycle ended 15000 years ago.

And as per the Geological timeline-table given in TMH, page 50-51, there were signs of evolution at both stages. Therefore, both events “might” have influenced the evolution.

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2.

(02) The seasonal reversal of winds is the typical characteristic of

(a) Equatorial climate

(b) Mediterranean climate

(d) All of the above climates

Explanation(s):-

Class11 India Physical, Chapter 4 page 33: Monsoon connotes the climate associated with seasonal reversal in the direction of winds.=> Either C or D

Unable to find a source that says Equatorial climate involves “Seasonal reversal of Wind”=> D is eliminated, and we are left with “C”.

Answer: (c) Monsoon Climate

(03) With reference to ‘Changpa’ community of India, consider the following statement:

1. They live mainly in the State of Uttarakhand.

2. They rear the Pashmina goats that yield a fine wool.

3. They are kept in the category of Scheduled Tribes.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation(s):-

Tribal Ministry Website says:

· Lists Changpa under ST category from Jammu Kashmir

· This means #1 is wrong and #3 is right. This eliminates A and D

· Now everything depends on whether #2 is right or wrong

From [The Hindu]

Pashmina: The Kashmir Shawl and Beyond follows the origin of the fibre right to the Changra goats, which are specially reared by the nomadic Changpa tribes of Ladakh, and then its refinement at the hands of the Kashmiri artisans and subsequent export and consumption by the rest of the world.

Changpa tribe’s present population is less than 9,000, and the adverse climatic conditions which force them to keep moving 10 to 12 times a year.

In Ladakh, merchants pay Rs.1,200 to 1,500 for a kilogram of raw Pashmina

Counterview:

Question says “Pashmina goats”, but Hindu says “Changra goats”. And goats don’t give ‘wool’. Ans. Well, Tehlaka.com connects the dots:

This area is also known as Rupsho Valley where the main occupation of the nomads is rearing yaks and Changra goats.

The unforgiving winter makes the goats grow extremely warm and soft veneer, which is six times finer than human hair and is used to make Pashmina wool.

Therefore Changra goats = Pashmina wool. Answer B: 2 and 3 only.

Answer: (b) 2 and 3 only.

(04) Consider the following towns of India:

1. Bhadrachalam

2. Chanderi

3. Kancheepuram

4. Karnal

Which of the above are famous for the production of traditional sarees / fabric?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 3 and 4

Explanation(s):-

#2 is right because official Madhya Pradesh Ashoknagar district website says:

“Chanderi is a tehsil of Ashoknagar district ..main occupation of the people of Chanderi is handicraft. Chanderi sarees are famous all over the world” This fact is frequently asked in MP PCS exams, and eliminates Option D

#3 Kancheepuram is right by common knowledge. This eliminates Option A.

Bhadrachalam: Disputed village during separation of Telangana and Andhra Pradesh.

Karnal: Was in news because some of its villages will be included in NCR (National capital region). It is famous for low sex ratio and female infanticide.

Answer: (b) 2 and 3 only.

(05) Consider the following rivers:

1. Barak

2. Lohit

3. Subansiri

Which of the above flows / flow through Arunachal Pradesh?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation(s):-

Barak: Arunachal Pradesh is wrong because

NCERT book Class11 India Physical, Chapter 2 page 15

The Barak is an important river in Manipur and Mizoram

India

Year Book 2014 Page 3 of – in third para-“The barak river , the head stream of Meghna rises in the hills in Manipur”

Therefore, statement #1 is wrong, this automatically eliminates A, C and D. We are left with answer (B) 2 and 3 only.

Answer: (b) 2 and 3 only.

(06) Consider the following pairs:

1. Cardamom Hills - Coromandel Coast

2. Kaimur Hills - Konkan Coast

3. Mahadeo Hills - Central India

4. Mikir Hills - North-East India

Which of the above pairs are correctly matched?

(a) 1 and 2

(b) 2 and 3

(d) 2 and 4

Explanation(s):-

Kaimur hills in Uttar Pradesh so no way it connected with Konkan coast. So 1 is wrong

That means options (a), (b) and (d) are wrong and we left with only (c)

Hence answer is (c)

Answer: (b) 3 and 4

(07) Consider the following pairs:

National Highway Cities connected

1. NH 4 Chennai and Hyderabad

2. NH 6 Mumbai and Kolkata

3. NH 15 Ahmedabad and Jodhpur

Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 3 only

(d) None

Explanation(s):-

NH4: Thane to Chennai via Pune belgaum Hubli Banglore and Ranipet

NH6: Dhule to Kolkatta via Nagpur- Raipur- Sambalpur

NH15: Pathnkot and kandla via Amritsar- Ganganagar- Jaisalmer

Answer: (d) None

(08) Which one of the following pairs of islands is separated from each other by the ‘Ten Degree Channel’?

(a) Andaman and Nicobar

(b) Nicobar and Sumatra

(d) Sumatra and Java

Explanation(s):-

NCERT Class11 India Physical, page 19:

“The Andaman in the north and the Nicobar in the south are separated by a water body called 10 degree channel”.

Therefore, answer is (a).

Answer: (a) Andaman and Nicobar

(09) Turkey is located between

(a) Black Sea and Caspian Sea

(b) Black Sea and Mediterranean Sea

(d) Gulf of Aqaba and Dead Sea

Explanation(s):-

Refer Atlas

Answer: (b) Black Sea and Mediterranean Sea

(10) What is the correct sequence of occurrence of the following cities in South-East Asia as one proceeds from south to north?

1. Bangkok 2.Hanoi 3.Jakarta 4.Singapore

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 4-2-1-3

(b) 3-2-4-1

(d) 4-3-2-1

Explanation(s):-

Refer Atlas

Answer: (c) 3-4-1-2

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How to approach Geography topics for UPSC CSE - 2015?

Ø In CSAT-2014, majority of the geography questions could be solved through NCERTs and School Atlas. Therefore, preparation must begin from there.

Ø After NCERTis done - Selective study from Spectrum’s Geography book OR Goh Che Leong’s Certificate Physical & Human Geography book OR General Studies Manual

India

Yearbook Chapter 1 “Land and People”

Ø DR Khullar’s India: A comprehensive Geography

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(05) Science

UPSC – CSE – 2013	UPSC – CSE – 2014
13 Questions	5 question- although good number of science-related questions under Agriculture and Environment
5 questions on physics	Physics gone with the wind.
Nothing from chemistry	1 MCQ
4 questions on public health	3
Asked about disease Chikungunya, Hepatitis B and HIV-AIDS	Diphtheria, chickenpox and smallpox
minerals vs muscle constriction	vitamin deficiency vs diseases

(01) Which of the following is/are the example/examples of chemical change?

1. Crystallization of sodium chloride

2. Melting of ice

3. Souring of milk

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 3 only

(d) None

Explanation(s):-

NCERT science Class7 chapter 6 page 64

Crystallization is an example of a physical change.

Therefore all options involving #1 are wrong. This eliminates A and C.

As such we all know that souring of milk is a chemical change. But just for the sake of “proof” ICSE Class6 page 52: Souring of milk is an example of Chemical change.

Therefore, answer is B only 3.

Answer: (b) 3 only.

(02) Consider the following diseases

1. Diphtheria

2. Chickenpox

3. Smallpox

Which of the above diseases has/have been eradicated in India?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 3 only

(d) None

Explanation(s):-

Diphtheria: Last year, Government introduced Pentavalent vaccine which also fights Diphtheria. It means Diphtheria is also prevalent. [The Hindu]

Chickenpox: Chickenpox is still prevalent. This is common knowledge.[The Hindu]

Smallpox: Smallpox has been eradicated from

India

So answer is 3 only

Answer: (b) 3 only.

(03) Consider the following pairs:

Vitamin Deficiency Disease

1. Vitamin C Scurvy

2. Vitamin D Rickets

3. Vitamin E Night Blindness

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 3 only

(d) None

Explanation(s):-

Night Blindness by Vitamin A

Answer: (a) 1 and 2 only.

(04) In addition to fingerprint scanning, which of the following can be used in the biometric identification of a person?

1. Iris scanning

2. Retinal scanning

3. Voice recognition

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation(s):-

Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3

(05) Which of the following pair is/are correctly matched?

Spacecraft Purpose

1. Cassini-Huygens Orbiting the Venus and transmitting data

to the Earth

2. Messenger Mapping and investigating the Mercury

3. Voyager 1 and 2 Exploring the outer solar system

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation(s):-

As per NASA website, Cassini is for Saturn. Therefore, #1 is wrong, this eliminates option A, C and D. we are left with final answer B only 2 and 3.

Answer: (b) 2 and 3 only.

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How to approach Science topics for UPSC CSE - 2015?

Ø NCERT Physics, Chemistry & Biology (Class 7 to 12)

Ø After NCERT, any competitive exam books (GS Manual)

India

Year Book - Chapter on Science and Technology (now this is in declining trend; but we can’t predict UPSC)

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(04) IRD – International Relations, Defence

UPSC – CSE – 2013	UPSC – CSE – 2014
CSAT-2013, 2012, 2011- they had stopped asking international relations, events and defense related topics.	Resumed asking
In CDS-2014 · Features of Pragati missile system · Statements about Indian Ocean rim org.	· Agni-4 · Statements about BRICS

(01) Recently, a series of uprisings of people referred to as ‘Arab Spring’ originally started from

(a) Egypt

(b) Lebanon

(d) Tunisia

Explanation(s):-

Arab Spring is a misnomer used by the media to describe the uprising that the self-immolation of Mohammad Bouazizi unleashed in Tunisia on December 18, 2010 in protest against police corruption and ill-treatment. Therefore, answer (D). Topic was in news, in May 2014, when

Tunisia

ended the state of emergency.

Answer: (d) Tunisia

(02) With reference to a grouping of countries known as BRICS, consider the following statements:

1. The First Summit of BRICS was held in Rio de Janeiro in 2009.

2. South Africa was the last to join the BRICS grouping.

Which of the statements given above is / are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation(s):-

Statement #1 wrong because first summit held in Yekarterinburg, Russia in 2009

Statement #2 is right. South Africa was admitted as a BRIC nation on 24/12/2010, after being invited by China and other BRIC nations. The capital “S” in BRICS now stands for South Africa…..There can be further expansion of BRICS and there is proposed inclusion of Mexico and South Korea.

Therefore, Answer B only 2 correct.

Topic was in news, July 2014, because 6th BRICS summit held in Brazil.

Answer: (b) 2 only.

(03) Consider the following pairs:

Region in News Country

1. Chechnya

Russian Federation

2. Darfur Mali

3. Swat Valley

Iraq

Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation(s):-

Darfur:

Sudan

Swat Valley: Pakistan

Therefore, 2 and 3 are wrong. By elimination, Answer has to be A.

Answer: (a) 1 only.

(04) Which reference to Agni-IV Missile, which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. It is a surface-to-surface missile.

2. It is fuelled by liquid propellant only.

3. It can deliver one-tonne nuclear warheads about 7500 km away.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation(s):-

News appeared in January 2014[Agni-IV]

It is a surface-to-surface missile

It is a two-stage solid propulsion

Its range is 4000 kms

Answer: (a) 1 only.

==========================================

How to approach IRD topics for UPSC CSE - 2015?

This is UPSC’s “doubt-bluff-Back-breaking move” to deter senior players and coaching classes from gaining competitive advantage over new players- because for last 3 years, UPSC did not ask IR/Defense GK so, they’d have stopped focusing in it.

Anyways, if UPSC wants to revive IR/defense then we’ve to prepare. Standard approach is following:

Ø Notes making from The Hindu (MUST – it is useful in mains and interviews)

Ø Augmenting those notes, using competitive magazines like Civil service Times, Pratiyogita etc. for factoids

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(03) Agriculture

UPSC – CSE – 2013	UPSC – CSE – 2014
5 questions	9 questions
There was a “trend” of asking Algae and fungi bio fertilizer type questions.	Thankfully that lunacy is over. Who has time to mugup such large list?
Soil conservation, partially available in standard geography books.	Nope. This time not a single MCQ is partially available in any standard reference books.
Uses of Sugar byproducts- easy question.	· sustainable sugarcane initiative: tough · Although Usage of neem and corn: relatively easy.

(01) Consider the following techniques/phenomena:

1. Budding and grafting in fruit plants

2. Cytoplasmic male sterility

3. Gene silencing

Which of the above is/are used to create transgenic crops?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3

(d) None

Explanation(s):-

Transgenic Crops: Crops that have genes from other crop species inserted into their genome are called transgenic crops.(Britannica). So what’re the methods to accomplish transgenic crops?

#3 is correct because

Transgenic Crop Plants: Volume 1: Principles and Development By Chittaranjan Kole,[Page 188]

…..In this chapter, we’ll focus on RNAi-mediated gene-silencing method available for development of transgenic crop plants…..

Means Gene silencing can be used to create transgenic crops, otherwise Mr. Chittaranjan wouldn’t bother writing a chapter about it!

This eliminates A and D.

Viewpoint #1

Transgenic plants: Leandro Pena, Page 182. He has described the procedure for creating transgenic “oranges”:

Graft the in-vitro grown plants onto lemonroot stocks for rapid development of the plan.

Monitor plant growth and Development…..(these) Transgenic sweet orange plants show morphology of an adult plant.

Therefore, yes, Budding-grafting can be used for making transgenic fruit crops.

Hence (c) 1 and 3 only

Viewpoint #2

Cytoplasmic male sterility technique is used to prevent the pollens of transgenic crops from fertilizing the other non-transgenic crops. (Google Book#1)

Cytoplasmic male sterility is used extensively in production of hybrids in species that’d undergo self-sterilization otherwise. CMS is used for improving maize, rice, cotton, canola and various vegetable crops.Book#2

Hence (b) 1 and 3 only

Final Answer? UPSC’s official answer key. So our ‘luck’ can swing either way between (b) and (c)

Answer: (b) 2 and 3 only / (c) 1 and 3

(02) Which of the following statements is / are correct regarding vegetative propagation of plants?

1. Vegetative propagation produces clonal population.

2. Vegetative propagation helps in eliminating the virus.

3. Vegetative propagation can be practiced most of the year.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation(s):-

All details in NCERT books

Final Answer? UPSC’s official answer key. So our ‘luck’ can swing either way between (c) and (d)

Answer: (c) 1 and 3 only / (d) 1, 2 and 3

(03)

Region	Well-known for the production of
1. Kinnaur	Areca nut
2. Mewat	Mango
3. Coromandel	Soya bean

Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 3 only

(d) None

Explanation(s):-

Kinnaur (Himachal): Arecanut is wrong because

· In India it is grown in Karnataka, Kerala, Assam, Maharashtra, West Bengal and parts of Tripura. (Ref: The Hindu)

This eliminates A and C.

#3: Coromandel- Soybean wrong because

· Top two producers are Madhya Pradesh and Maharashtra

This eliminates B and C. Thus we get answer (D)

Counterview:

Some websites say Soybean also cultivated in Andhra Pradesh and Tamil Nadu. It’s not asking about “largest area” but “famous area” So, #3 is right, Coromandel also part of it.

Final Answer? UPSC’s official answer key. So our ‘luck’ can swing either way between (b) and (d)

Answer: (b) 3 only / (d) None

(04) Consider the following statements:

1. Maize can be used for the production of starch.

2. Oil extracted from maize can be a feedstock for biodiesel.

3. Alcoholic beverages can be produced by using maize.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3

(05) With reference to Neem tree, consider the following statements:

1. Neem oil can be used as a pesticide to control the proliferation of some species of insects and mites.

2. Neem seeds are used in the manufacture of biofuels and hospital detergents.

3. Neem oil has applications in pharmaceutical industry.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation(s):-

Neem is used in pesticide: [Times of India]

Neem is biofuels: Hospital detergent, seems true. Can’t locate any direct source to validate OR refute this statement.[Google]

Neem in pharmaceutical industry: [Times of India]

Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3

(06) In the context of food and nutritional security of India, enhancing the ‘Seed Replacement Rates’ of various crops helps in achieving the food production targets of the future. But what is/are the constraint/ constraints in its wider / greater implementation?

1. There is no National Seeds Policy in place.

2. There is no participation of private sector seed companies in the supply of quality seeds of vegetables and planting materials of horticultural crops.

3. There is a demand-supply gap regarding quality seeds in case of low value and high volume crops.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 3 only

(d) None

Explanation(s):-

National Seed policy made in 2002

Private sector: The private sector, on the other hand, produces high-priced seeds but in lower volume. It supplies nearly the entire hybrid seeds required for vegetables.

Demand-Supply

· Despite all this, there is a huge gap between the requirement and supply of seeds. Seed firms are unable to take advantage of the situation since marginal farmers, who own 60 per cent of the land, go in for cheaper seeds supplied by unorganized sector.

· In the case of field crops such as wheat and rice, farmers tend to use their own preserved seeds.

· Their reluctance to go in for hybrid seeds is because of the fact that they cannot reuse them.

Answer: (b) 3 only

(07) What are the benefits of implementing the ‘Integrated Watershed Development Programme’?

1. Prevention of soil runoff

2. Linking the country’s perennial rivers with seasonal rivers

3. Rainwater harvesting and recharge of groundwater table

4. Regeneration of natural vegetation

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2, 3 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Explanation(s):-

Linking rivers = not an objective of IWDP program. Therefore #2 is wrong, this eliminates a, b, d. Therefore, answer (c) 1,3,4 only

Answer: (c) 1, 3 and 4 only

(08) What are the significances of a practical approach to sugarcane production known as ‘Sustainable Sugarcane Initiative’?

1. Seed cost is very low in this compared to the conventional method of cultivation.

2. Drip irrigation can be practiced very effectively in this.

3. There is no application of chemical/ inorganic fertilizers at all in this.

4. The scope for intercropping is more in this compared to the conventional method of cultivation.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 1, 2 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Explanation(s):-

As per TN Agro university [TNAU]: NPK (fertilizers) can be applied at the rate of 112 kg, 25 kg and 48 kg per acre, respectively through inorganic or organic methods. Hence statement #3 is wrong, this eliminates a, c and d. therefore, answer (b) 1,2,4 only

Answer: (b) 1, 2 and 4 only

(09) Consider the following pairs:

Programme/ Project	Ministry
1. Drought-Prone Area Programme	of Agriculture
2. Desert Development Programme	of Environment and Forests
3. National Watershed Development Project for Rainfed Areas	of Rural Development

Which of the above pairs are correctly matched?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 3 only

(d) None

Explanation(s):-

Drought-Prone Area programme: Ministry of Rural Development

Desert Development Programme: Ministry of Agriculture

National Watershed Development Project for Rainfed Areas: Ministry of Rural Development

Answer: (d) None

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How to approach Agriculture for UPSC CSE - 2015?

Ø Last year, 1061 were selected for IFoS mains but out them only 515 bothered to write the actual mains. Meaning, remaining candidates were focused on Civil service mains.

Ø Consequently, the hardcore “only-IFoS” type candidates suffered since they couldn’t get tickets to mains because of those “CSE+IfoS” types who did not appear in IFoS mains.

Ø So perhaps, UPSC adopted this technique of “increased the number & difficulty level of agriculture-environment questions in 2014”, to give them better chance to stand in the competition.

Ø Thus, 2014’s agro questions were designed as a “Back Strengthening move” for the hardcore “IFoS only” candidates, therefore Civil service exam (CSE) candidates need not worry much.

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(02) History

UPSC 2013	UPSC 2014
History culture occupied 15 questions	20
Freedom struggle portion: 5 questions, all easy from routine books	Same
Culture portion 8 MCQs: moderate to difficult level	15 Culture MCQ. Although 9 of them directly from routine books / sources.
Harappa/Indus valley asked	Nil
Tough Question about Foreign traveler and same “genre” repeated in subsequent CDS-CAPF exams	Nil
Question on Bhakti Saints Dadu Dayal, Guru Nanak, Tyagaraj	Dadu Dayal asked again.
Sankhya school, tough question	Question on philosophical schools
Rock cut caves	Cave Sculptures

(01) Which of the following Kingdoms were associated with the life of the Buddha?

1. Avanti

2. Gandhara

3. Kosala

4. Magadha

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only

(b) 2 and 4 only

(d) 1, 3 and 4 only

Explanation(s):-

Viewpoint #1

To get a better mental picture, first let’s find modern day equivalent of those places

Avanti @ Malwa

Gandhara @ Western part of Pakistan and Afghanistan

Kosala @ Districts of Faizabad, Gonda, Bahraich in UP

Magadha @ Patna, Gaya, Nalanda in Bihar area.

We can eliminate choices involving number 2 (Gadhara) because Buddha never travelled to Pakistan. Hence (a) and (b) are eliminated.

Buddha born in Lumbini, in Kosala kingdom.=> 3 must be included.

Buddha died in Kusinagar, in Magadha kingdom=> 4 must be included.

If we eliminate answer choices that do not have 3 and 4 together => still we are left with C or D. Therefore, final answer depends on whether Buddha went to Avanti or not.

Once Buddha was invited by King Pradyota of Avanti, but he declined to go because of his old age, and deputed Maha Kachchayana, a native of Avanti to impart his teachings there. => #1 Avanti is wrong. This eliminates option A and D. {Source: Region in Indian History edited by Mahendra Pratāpa Page 47}

Avanti lay outside the area visited by Buddha, and was converted to his teaching by his disciple Mahakaccana. {Source: Historical Buddha: Hans Wolfgang Page 3}

So answer is (c)

Viewpoint #2

Question uses the word “associated” with Buddha’s life. So, it is not essential that Buddha himself must have visited the place. Even sending a disciple (Kachchayana), counts as place “associated” with his life.

Therefore, answer (D) 1, 3 and 4

Final Answer? UPSC’s official answer key. So our ‘luck’ can swing either way between (c) and (d)

Answer: (c) 3 and 4 only / (d) 1, 3 and 4 only

(02) Consider the following statements:

1. ‘Bijak’ is a composition of the teachings of Saint Dadu Dayal.

2. The Philosophy of Pushti Marg was propounded by Madhvacharya.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation(s):-

Statement #1 is wrong because:

NCERT class 7, Page 116: Kabir’s ideas were later collected and preserved in Bijak.

Statement #2 is wrong because

Alternate source: Lucent GK page 71: Vallabhacharya (1479-1531)- he propounded the philosophy of Pushtimarg.

Answer: (d) Neither 1 nor 2

(03) Which one of the following pairs does not form part of the six systems of Indian Philosophy?

(a) Mimamsa and Vedanta

(b) Nyaya and Vaisheshika

(d) Sankhya and Yoga

Explanation(s):-

Six system of Indian philosophy are:

Samkhya, Yoga, Nyaya , Vaisheshika, Mimamsa and Vedanta

Answer: (c) Lokayata and Kapalika

(04) Ibadat Khana at Fatehpur Sikri was

(a) the mosque for the use of Royal Family

(b) Akbar’s private chamber prayer

(d) the room in which the nobles belonging to different religions gathered to discuss religious affairs.

Explanation(s):-

NCERT class7 History, Chapter 4, Page 54: While Akbar was at Fatehpur Sikri during the 1570s he started discussions on religion with the ulama, Brahmanas, Jesuit priests who were Roman Catholics, and Zoroastrians. These discussions took place in the ibadat khana.

Here (c) and (d) are almost similar. But the words ‘scholars’ and ‘nobles’ distinguishes.

Answer: (c) the hall in which Akbar held discussions with scholars of various religions.

(05) With reference to the cultural history of India, the term ‘Panchayatan’ refers to

(a) an assembly of village elders

(b) a religious sect

(d) an administrative functionary

Explanation(s):-

Temple Architecture

Panchayatana – a temple that has a central shrine surrounded by four other shrines

Answer: (c) a style of temple construction

(06) With reference to Buddhist history, tradition and culture in India.

Consider the following pairs:

Famous shrine Location

1. Tabo monastery and

temple complex Spiti Valley

2. Lhotsava Lhakhang

temple, Nako Zanskar Valley

3. Alchi temple complex Ladakh

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation(s):-

Lhotsava Lhakhang, Nako is in Himachal Pradesh

Answer: (c) 1 and 3 only

(07) With reference to the Indian history of art and culture, consider the following pairs:

	Famous work of sculpture	Site
1	A grand image of Buddha’s Mahaparinirvana with numerous celestial musicians above and the sorrowful figures of his followers below	Ajanta
2	A huge image of Varaha Avatar (boar incarnation) of Vishnu, as he rescues Goddess Earth from the deep and chaotic waters, sculpted on rock	Mount Abu
3	“Arjuna’s Penance” /”Descent of Ganga” sculpted on the surface of huge boulders	Mamallapuram

Which of the pairs given above is/ are correctly matched?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation(s):-

Parinirvana of the Buddha in Cave 17 of Ajanta, with numerous celestial musicians above and the sorrowful figures of his followers below, is one of the grandest and yet most delicately expressive scenes ever made in stone. {Source: ASI official website and Frontline Magazine}

Vishnu (Varah / boar form) saving Goddess Earth= found at Mamallapuram {Source: Images of Indian Goddesses by Madhu Bazaz Page 91}

So 2. is wrong. Form the options, eliminate where 2 are given à (a) and (d) are wrong. 1. is correct (and 2. is wrong) à only one option as such (c)

Answer: (c) 1 and 3 only

(08) With reference to the famous Sattriya dance, consider the following statements:

1. Sattriya is a combination of music, dance and drama.

2. It is a centuries-old living tradition of Vaishnavites of Assam.

3. It is based on classical Ragas and Talas of devotional songs composed by Tulsidas, Kabir and Mirabai.

Which of the statements given above is /are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation(s):-

About Sattriya

This neo-Vaishnava treasure of Assamese dance and drama has been….…Sattriya dance tradition is governed by strictly laid down principles in respect……music etc=> Statement 1 right. Combination of music, dance and drama

Sattriya dance form was introduced in the 15th century A.D by the great Vaishnava saint and reformer of Assam, Mahapurusha Sankaradeva as a powerful medium for propagation of the Vaishnava faith.=> Statement 2 is right

Statement 3: hard to locate direct source in Google books, to refute or validate the third statement. Hence joining dots

music of Sattriya dance comprises of classical ragas (melodies), talas (rhythms) and traditional songs. [Addl. Ref#1]

Tulsidas and Mira were Vaishnavite. [Addl. Ref#2]

Kabir was a Vaishnavite. [Addl. Ref#3]

Still confusing, answer may be either all statements correct (or) the first two statements alone correct

Final Answer? UPSC’s official answer key. So our ‘luck’ can swing either way between (c) and (d)

Answer: (b) 1 and 2 only / (d) 1, 2 and 3 only

(09) A community of people called Manganiyars is well-known for their

(a) martial arts in North-East India

(b) musical tradition in North-West India

(d) pietra dura tradition in Central India

Explanation(s):-

May 26, 2014; Indian Express mentioned this.

Manganiyars — a tribal community from Rajasthan with a strong musical tradition

Answer: (b) musical tradition in North – West India

(10) Consider following pairs

1. Garba : Gujarat

2. Mohiniattam : Odisha

3. Yakshagana : Karnataka

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation(s):-

Mohiniattam – Kerala

Answer: (c) 1 and 3 only

(11) With reference to India’s culture and tradition, what is ‘Kalaripayattu’?

(a) It is an ancient Bhakti cult of Shaivism still prevalent in some parts of South India

(b) It is an ancient style bronze and brasswork still found in southern part of Coromandel area

(d) It is an ancient martial art and a living tradition in some parts of South India

Explanation(s):-

Performing Arts in India

Answer: (d) It is an ancient martial art and a living tradition in some parts of South India

(12) The national motto of India, ‘Satyameva Jayate’ inscribed below the Emblem of India is taken from

(a) Katha Upanishad

(b) Chandogya Upanishad

(d) Mundaka Upanishad

Explanation(s):-

India

Year Book 2014: Chapter 2 - Page 28

Answer: (d) Mundaka Upanishad

(13) Chaitra 1 of the national calendar based on the Saka Era corresponds to which one of the following dates of the Gregorian calendar in a normal year of 365 days?

(a) 22 March (or 21st March)

(b) 15th May (or 16th May)

(d) 21st April (or 20th April

Explanation(s):-

India

Year Book 2014: Chapter 2 - Page 30

Answer: (a) 22 March (or 21st March)

(14) Consider the following languages:

1. Gujarati

2. Kannada

3. Telugu

Which of the above has/have been declared as ‘Classical Language / Languages’ by the Government?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation(s):-

News appeared in Feb 2014

The Hindu

Answer: (c) 2 and 3 only

(15) In medieval India, the designations ‘Mahattara’ and ‘Pattakila’ were used for

(a) military officers

(b) village headmen

(d) chiefs of craft guilds

Explanation(s):-

Mahattara: village elders {Source: Early Medieval Society by R. S. Sharma - Page 333}

Answer: (b) village headmen

(16) The Partition of Bengal made by Lord Curzon in 1905 lasted until

(a) the First World War when Indian troops were needed by the British and the partition was ended.

(b) King George V abrogated Curzon’s Act at the Royal Darbar in Delhi in 1911

(d) the Partition of India, in 1947 when East Bengal became East Pakistan

Answer: (b)

(17) The 1929 Session of Indian, National Congress is of significance in the history of the Freedom Movement because the

(a) attainment of Self-Government was declared as the objective of the Congress

(b) attainment of Poorna Swaraj Was adopted as the goal of the Congress

(d) decision to participate in the Round Table Conference in London was taken

Answer: (b)

(18) The Ghadr (Ghadar) was a

(a) Revolutionary association of Indians with headquarters at San Francisco.

(b) nationalist organization operating from Singapore

(d) communist movement for India’s freedom with head-quarters at Tashkent

Answer: (a)

(19) What was/were the object/objects of Queen Victoria’s Proclamation (1858)?

1. To disclaim any intention to annex Indian States

2. To place the Indian administration under the British Crown

3. To regulate East India Company’s trade with India

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (a)

(20) The Radcliffe Committee was appointed to

(a) solve the problem of minorities in India

(b) give effect to the Independence Bill

(d) enquire into the riots in East Bengal

Answer: (c)

Explanation(s) for Questions 16 – 20 :-

All the Modern India / Indian Independence Movement notes or books have those details; especially Tamil Nadu School Book [History] - Class XII

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How to approach History for UPSC CSE - 2015?

Ø (MUST) Tamil Nadu History book of Class12 [or OLD NCERT] as a starting textbook.

Ø (Good) Spectrum’s Brief History of Modern India, By Rajiv Ahir.

Ø Although TMH General studies Manual and Spectrum but spectrum far thinner and easier to revise. and has proved worthy even in Mains-2013

Ø Bipan Chandra has its utility in the mains, essay. It should be read depending on the time factor.

Ancient and Medieval India:

Ø In the 90s exams, it used to be Vedic age, Ancient kingdoms, Medieval kingdoms and freedom struggle.

Ø And now it’s just Freedom struggle and Culture. Whatever they ask from ancient-medieval, it’s mainly focused on culture part. So for Ancient-medieval, refer to Culture studyplan given above.

Ø Besides, in Tamil Nadu Class 11 already covers the kingdom angle e.g. kings vs religion patronized, king vs monument, king vs policies and so on.

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(01) Indian Polity

2013	2014
18 MCQ from Polity	Only 11. Drastic reduction – to make “space” for environment and agriculture (perhaps for IFoS?)
No current affairs	Same
Majority were easy and could be solved from Laxmikanth	Same
Majority MCQs from “executive, legislature and Constitution-basics”	Same
Question involving NDC and Planning commission	Yes
DPSP list item	Yes
Governors (Removal Issues)	Governors (Powers)
Bodies asked	Yes

(01) Consider the following statements:

(1) The President shall make rules for the more convenient transaction of the business of the Government of India, and for the allocation among Ministers of the said business.

(2) All executive actions of the Government of India shall be expressed to be taken in the name of the Prime Minister.

Which of the statements given above is / are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation(s):-

Ref: Laxmikanth 4th edition. Pg 17.7 Topic: Executive Powers of President.

Statement 1 is correct. (Article 77(3) uses the same wording “Shall”).

All executive actions of the Government of India shall be expressed to be taken in the name of the PRESIDENT (not prime minister). Therefore, statement 2 is wrong.

Answer: (a) 1 only

(02) Which of the following are the discretionary powers given to the Governor of a State?

(1) Sending a report to the President of India for imposing the President’s rule

(2) Appointing the Ministers

(3) Reserving certain bills passed by the State Legislature for consideration of the President of India

(4) Making the rules to conduct the business of the State Government

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Explanation(s):-

We must use elimination method, otherwise there is good chance of making silly mistakes.

Ref. Laxmikanth Page 26.10, bottom lines: The governor has Constitutional discretion in following cases:

Reservation of bill for consideration of the President.

Recommendation of the imposition of President’s rule.

Therefore, statement 1 and 3 are definitely right. So,eliminate all choices, that do not have (1 and 3) together.

~~1 and 2 only~~

1 and 3 only

~~2, 3 and 4 only~~

1, 2, 3 and 4

Now we are left with B and D. Let’s focus attention to statement 2. Appointing the Ministers

As per Laxmikanth Chapter [chief minister], Page 27.2, last section.

“The chief minister enjoys following powers….Governor only appoints those persons as ministers who are recommended by the Chief Minister.” In other words Governor doesn’t have “Discretion” in appointment of the minister.

Therefore, #2 is wrong. Eliminate choices involving number 2.

~~1 and 2 only~~

1 and 3 only

~~2, 3 and 4 only~~

~~1, 2, 3 and 4~~

Answer: (b) 1 and 3 only

(03) Consider the following statements regarding a No-Confidence Motion in India:

(1) There is no mention of a No-Confidence Motion in the Constitution of India.

(2) A Motion of No-Confidence can be introduced in the Lok Sabha only.

Which of the statements given above is / are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation(s):-

Ref: Laxmikanth chapter on parliament, Page 22.15

Art 75 says that the Council of Ministers shall be collectively responsible to Lok Sabha. In other words, Lok Sabha can remove them by passing a no-confidence motion (NCM). But the word “no confidence motion” itself is not given in Constitution itself, it comes from Rule 198 of Lok Sabha Rules. Therefore statement 1 is right, NCM not in Constitution.

Same chapter (in page 22.29); Rajya Sabha cannot pass cannot remove council of ministers by passing no-confidence motion. Meaning- statement 2 also correct- no confidence motion can be introduced, only in Lok Sabha.

Therefore, Answer C Both 1 and 2 correct.

Counter view:

No confidence motion can be introduced in Vidhan Sabha therefore statement #2 is wrong; because it uses the word “only” Therefore, answer is (B) only 2.

Final Answer? UPSC’s official answer key. Sometimes they drag the “only” logic, sometimes they don’t. (So our ‘luck’ can swing either way.)

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2 / (b) 2 only

(04) Which one of the following is the largest Committee of the Parliament?

(a) The Committee on Public Accounts

(b) The Committee on Estimates

(d) The Committee on Petitions

Explanation(s):-

Ref: Laxmikanth Chapter on Parliament. Page 22.30 to 22.33

Answer: (b) The Committee on Estimates

(05) Which one of the following Schedules of the Constitution of India contains provisions regarding anti-defection?

(a) Second Schedule

(b) Fifth Schedule

(d) Tenth Schedule

Explanation(s):-

Ref: Laxmikanth ch.67, opening paragraph

[The 52nd Amendment act of 1985, 10th schedule to the Constitution; this is often referred to as anti-defection law]

Answer: (d) Tenth Schedule

(06) The power of the Supreme Court of India to decide disputes between the Centre and the States falls under its

(a) advisory jurisdiction

(b) appellate jurisdiction

(d) writ jurisdiction

Explanation(s):-

Laxmikanth Chapter on Supreme court. Page 25.5. Topic “original jurisdiction”

“…As a federal court, the supreme court decides the disputes between centre and one or more states….”

Answer: (c) original jurisdiction

(07) The power to increase the number of judges in the Supreme Court of India is vested in

(a) the President of India

(b) the Parliament

(d) the Law Commission

Explanation(s):-

Laxmikanth Chapter on Supreme court. Page 25.1 Topic “organization of Supreme court”:- …Parliament has increased number of judges from 10 in 1956 to…..”

Answer: (b) the Parliament

(08) Which of the following are associated with ‘Planning’ in India?

1. The Finance Commission

2. The National Development Council

3. The Union Ministry of Rural Development

4. The Union Ministry of Urban Development

5. The Parliament

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1, 2 and 5 only

(b) 1, 3 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

Explanation(s):-

Finance commission is involved in distribution of taxes and grants. It is not involved in planning. So by just eliminating all options involving statement 1, we get answer [C] only 2 and 5 correct.

Answer: (c) 2 and 5 only

(09) Which of the following is / are the function/functions of the Cabinet Secretariat?

1. Preparation of agenda for Cabinet Meetings

2. Secretarial assistance to Cabinet Committees

3. Allocation of financial resources to the Ministries

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation(s):-

Statement number 1 and 2 are correct. As per following resources

M.Laxmikanth’s Public Administration book, Chapter on Union Government page 427. Both functions given

Cabinet Secretariat Website:- http://cabsec.nic.in/about_functions.php

India

yearbook 2014, Chapter 3 Polity, page 40. Accordingly statement #2 is correct. (Although it’s silent on 1 and 3).

Statement #3 outside the realms of cabinet Secretariat. Financial resources are allotted to ministries, as per the provisions in budget prepared by finance ministry. Therefore, answer C only 1 and 2.

Answer: (c) 1 and 2

(10) In the Constitution of India, promotion of international peace and security is included in the

(a) Preamble to the Constitution

(b) Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP)

(d) Ninth Schedule

Explanation(s):-

Ref: Laxmikanth Chapter 8 on Directive principles of State Policy, page 8.3

Article 51: to promote international peace and security and maintain just an honorable relations between nations between nations; to foster respect for international law and treaty obligations, and to encourage settlements of international disputes by arbitration.

Answer: (b) Directive Principles of State Policy

(11) Consider the following statements:

A Constitutional Government is one which

1. Places effective restrictions on individual liberty in the interest of State Authority

2. Places effective restrictions on the Authority of the State in the interest of individual liberty

Which of the statements given above is / are correct?

(a)1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation(s):-

(1) Both are correct:

Art 19 – State can put “reasonable” restrictions. Art22 Preventive detention (but with caveats)=>1 is right.

Art. 20, 21, 22, => protection against excessive punishment, of life, liberty, arrest-detection=>2 is right.

(2) Only 2iscorrect

While both is right, no doubt. But which one of them is essential to explain the term “Constitutional government”?

Only second term: places effective restriction on the authority of state.

Source: Indian Government and politics by Abbas Hoveyda Page9.

A state is a Constitutional state, if it limits its powers and recognizes the rights of individuals as fundamental for their development.

Final Answer? UPSC’s official answer key. Sometimes they drag the “only” logic, sometimes they don’t. (So our ‘luck’ can swing either way.)

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2 / (b) 2 only

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How to approach Polity in UPSC-2015?

Ø NCERT Political science must be read. Even though no questions came from UPSC Prelims-2014), but it has its utilities.

Ø Indian Polity by M. Laxmikanth (Tata Macgrawhill Publication) must be used as Base-book for polity theory. All chapters, appendix must be prepared in thorough detail, all mock questions must be solved. Although recent exams have been mainly focused President, parliament and DPSP chapters and overall easier nature of question compared to last year. BUT you cannot take anything for granted in UPSC. (Whether the book is excellent or not is important. It is to crack exam matters)

Ø India Yearbook’s Chapter 3 (Polity) must be read.

Ø Polity Current affairs must be prepared throughout the year, from The HINDU. [Because, even though current polity not asked in UPSC-2014, but Mains-2013 GS paper II descriptive questions on polity, had the current flavor; besides Current Polity important for interviews].

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SENTHIL KUMAR

UPSC -2014 Prelims (Aug 24, 2014) - Question Paper Analysis - Topic Wise

(08) Economics

(07) Environment

(06) Geography

(05) Science

(03) Agriculture

(02) History

(01) Indian Polity

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